We're in the middle of a discussion with our landlord about an outstanding bill. As far as we're concerned, our lease specifically states that he is responsible for it, but he is claiming that the law says otherwise and over-rides those particular terms of the lease.
He's obviously done a bit of homework on this because there's nothing concrete out there to categorically state either way who is correct, but that obviously means that no-one is completely incorrect either.
As usual, UF is trying to be the fount of all knowledge when it's not his area of expertise and is already making declarations of intent. As much as I completely disagree with how the landlord has handled things (text messages and the actual outstanding bill rather than telling us upfront), the fact remains that he could be correct. If that's the case, that would push the cost of living here to a point where I would have to consider looking elsewhere, and I know that MfW, who's extremely tight with money, is already considering it.
It's just more stress when I don't need it really.
2 comments:
http://www.citizensadvice.co.uk/en/getadvice/
Thank you. I've already emailed them about it. My gut says that the lease is correct and that we don't owe anything at least in arrears, but future payments may be built into a new lease when we're due to renew.
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